Subject: Re: wittgenstein, lyotard, foucault
Date: Wed, 17 Dec 1997 17:09:27 PST


Hi all - seasons greetings and all that

Last night I reread the preface to Differend in some detail.  Two small 
things lept out at me

 - "Their legacy ought to be relieved today of its cumbersome debt to 
antrhopomorphism (the notion of 'use' in both, an anthropomorphism that 
is transcendental in Kant, empirical in Wittgenstein)."

Does anyone care to elaborate on this point?

 - " . . . prologues to an honourable postmodernity."

What meaning can this have?  Is such a thing possible - I must admit my 
scepticism here.

Any thoughts?

Jon

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