Date: Wed, 02 Jul 1997 03:32:48 -0700
Subject: Paralogy question.


To the Lyotard group:

	Would it be paralogical to  recast in a contemporary idiom the 
insights of an historical  figure ?
	
	For example, if one takes from the Wittgensteinean tradition the 
idea that language and thought are two analogous species of a more 
general conception of a symbol system, then would it be paralogical to 
recast, rethink, rewrite and restate e.g. Kant's three Critiques as being 
about language  and as applying to thought by analogy?

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