Date: Tue, 3 Mar 1998 19:05:02 -0500
Subject: HAB: Critique of Moral Universalism
In response to Steven I will try to demonstrate two points.
1. That the idea of a performative contradiction is logically
incoherent (because it depends on an teleological
understanding of cognition and because it cannot be
non-normatively restructured) and
2. That in establishing this dependency Habermas cannot
claim to have successfully established the moral
universalism that his moral theory of discourse supports.
First: Habermas's discourse ethics operates on the idea that
the moral point of view can be established impartially. This
requires a separation of issues of the good life and issues of
justice. Without belaboring the issue - Habermas has failed to
do this.
As Benhabib notes the idea of impartiality relies upon a
"generalized other" - a public persona (and, in fact, a
monological retreat to the philosophy of the subject). Since an
actual consensus regarding a specific issue could only
determine its impartiality in retrospect (as Wellmer
carefully notes) - Habermas MUST posit the distinction
BEFORE the conversation takes place - something which, as
he admits, cannot be done. So any resulting consensus will
have taken place within a concrete community - which is an
ethical community and therefore the results ARE ostensibly
partial. In this sense agreement cannot be seen to confer
rationality OR morality to a specific issue (only legal validity).
The idea of consensus is a LEGAL principle - not
essentially a moral one. Habermas's distinction between
justification and application doesn't solve the problem. Since
discourses regarding application are inevitably just as partial,
and contextualized, as justificatory discourses (if Benhabib's
logic is correct).
However this would render Habermas's discourse ethics
relativistic - and he really doesn't want that - so he has to
ignore the problem or go about it in another way. In effect
Benhabib has demonstrated, with her critique, that the moral
domain is incoherent in Habermas. So Habermas
appeals to a transcendental understanding of humankind
('man').
Habermas ignores the problem (above) by arguing that human
beings are essentially vulnerable and teleological beings (ie.
opening Habermas up to the charge that he has developed a
metaphysical model). Morality is necessary as a safety net to
protect the web of communicative relationships (morality is
the gap between a damaged life and an undamaged life). This
already implies a psychological and social ideal in Habermas
- unfettered communicative freedom.
Habermas also argues that the idea of the performative
contradiction MIRRORS progressive cognitive development.
Working backward from the cognitive ideal Habermas exacts
the presuppositions of speech that would permit the
possibility of attaining the idea. This is the point at which
Habermas begs the question. Habermas must already
possess knowledge of the ideal before working back to the
conditions in which the ideal could be manifest. He MUST
posit the conclusion AS A PREMISE of the conclusion. It is a
logical circle from the perspective of a moral idea. In any
event - even if it can be demonstrated otherwise the
performative contradiction can only emphasize legal validity
and not rational or moral validity (remember Habermas is
relying on the Kantian idea of reason as noncontradiction).
Habermas tries to avoid this by granting special privilege to
the reconstructive sciences (the objective sciences) to
determine where the telos is moving. Whereas arguments
take place within actual debate - with real people in real time -
the reconstructive sciences are able to impartially affirm the
presuppositions of any possible argument from the third
person perspective. The problem with this is that Habermas
must assume that the sciences possess the capacity to be
impartial. However, as many critics of science have pointed
out - the sciences are partial (Adorno, Gadamer, etc.). So
Habermas CANNOT rationally depend upon the sciences,
reconstructive or not, to establish the kind of impartiality
necessary to defend the idea that argumentation can and will
lead (eventually or potentially) to universal moral norms or
objective truth claims (remember that agreement is a legal
principle not a principle which confers truth OR morality).
However if the idea of science itself can be understood as a
normative enterprise - and NOT an objective one - then the
comparison between the always already presuppositions of
speech as objective falls apart. If science yields normatively
charged results then Habermas cannot rely on the sciences to
determine, impartially, the objective functions of language.
Moreover the life of the human being MUST be a mirror of the
self-understood objectivity of the sciences which in turn MUST
mirror the society writ large. Human beings MUST, like the
aims of science, orient themselves by impartiality. Habermas
uses Lawrence Kohlberg's work on cognitive development to
demonstrate this. Habermas sees impartiality everywhere - in
science, in ethics, and in law. Habermas assumes that the
individual psyche is mirrored in the social institutions of a
given culture. Whereas the telos of language is
understanding - the telos of society is consent (which is why
he goes on to argue that a rational society MUST institute law
and democracy to avoid regression into irrationality).
However Habermas has not demonstrated the morality of any
of these things. Not only is his understanding of morality
based upon a transcendental image of humanity his
proceduralism is as well.
What Habermas has done is develop a HUGE monological
circle. His understanding of normativity is determined
normatively within the science under the guise of a
non-normative analysis. His understanding of science, drawn
from presupposed distinctions regarding truth, rightness, and
truthfulness, is weakened once the ideals of science have
been demonstrated to be illusionary. Habermas, in effect, has
develop *a* discourse theory of morality not *the*
discourse theory of morality. Heller acknowledges this when
she talks about *an* ethics of personality and Benhabib
acknowledges this when she talks about communicative
ethics *trumping* other moral perspectives reflexively (which
is still open to question) (ie. Communicative ethics is *an*
ethics not *the* ethic).
This critique is fairly repetitive and relatively unsupported by
references to Habermas's texts so I expect the charge of
"faulty" analysis and/or misunderstanding... but I await the
rejoinder anyway with a willingness to support each of the
claims I have made here with specific references to the text.
as always, hypothetically,
Ken
PS. I also think this analysis supports my reading of
Habermas that argues that he instills a utopian vision within
his understanding of discourse (the emphatic character of his
work) - something further clarified by examining it in relation to
the idea of the moral imaginary. Something I intentially have
not brought out directly in this critique.
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